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("Damn, We Lost Again!
And why is it
that people who sell
tax protestor materials file their tax returns anyway . . .")
Please be clear. Did or did not the Independent
Treasury Act (that IS what you refer to?) extend FRBs (it
was for them collectively or just for one?) into the states
of the union?
How was McFadden killed? Did he quiet down
before he was killed or did he have any opportunity left
to keep chirping?
MSBookshelf has nothing on McFadden!!
Why do you minimize tautology. Isn't it a rule
for law that tautology is never permissible? I
mean the point I'm trying to get solid on by bouncing it
off of fellow literates is that Congress really had to
go round the bend on this one -to put over the illusion
that it was for the 48 states.
Are you saying that naked authority
originating in Roosevelt and continued by Presidents is GOOD
FOR LAW irrespective of approval of Congress whether only
by appearance of sanction or by the real thing (which they
have never done)?
AND I note in the petition for
repeal of the emergency powers that FDR's order
are incorporated in 12 USC 95. If that is so FDR never said
anything about the America people, bout only about the banks
and the penalty liability for FRBs if not in step?
So where on paper is the alteration of Wilson's
1917 language?
Please help me understand how this all fits
together. -Thank you -JS
On Tue, 30 Jan 2001 15:15:28 -0500 Big Al <xxx> writes:
Since the federal reserve Board actually wrote the trading
with the enemy act of 1933 and the pres signed it under executive
authority under the war power emergency, that is all that
he needed to get Congress, the dupes that they were, to go
along and give the appearance of law when it was only executive
orders and resolutions. McFadden was the lone cryer in the
woods and he was killed for that. Yes there was authorization
for the federal reserve banks to do business and that was
the Act of 1920 in the year 1921. A Tautologist is
just one who uses different words to express the same
thing.
Big Al
xxx wrote:
Then you also recognize tautology in 12 USC
95? [I saw that the enclaves were included] You also see that
just likethere is nowhere any explicit authorization for
the Federal Reserve banks to inhabit, or at least no authorization
for them toserve/do the business to, the now 50 states, there likewise
was and is no explicit authorization for any bank holidays
to have occurred in the 48 states, nor any explicit authority
for making the America people alien enemies? Word
smart Congress has covered its ass since 1933 and has
the people petitioning for paper repeal of a tyranny THAT
DOES NOT EXIST ON PAPER but does exist by force of critical
mass functional illiteracy? On Tue, 30 Jan 2001
11:22:16 -0500 Big Al <xxx> writes:
No, they took care of the enclaves within the States when
they used the term possessions. An enclave is a possession
of the United States so the termonology is correct in the
statute.
Big Al
Julian Swig wrote:
I.
IRS Publication 1999 1040A Forms and Instructions at page
66 the two pie graphs for "Income" and "Outlays" This
respresentation belies our assertions (from various corners
of the research world) that the income tax goes 100% to to
the rouge bankers for interest on the national debt. Now
it is important to me that our credibility not be fractured
in the feeble minds of inquiring sheeple. The trick has to
be that the Outlay pie is not the income or is not all of
the of the "Income" pie. Have I just answered
my own question? If so its by speculation. "Personal
income taxes are 48% of the Income pie. Do SS 33%, Corporate
11%, Excise et., al 8% go to the debt or do they become part
of all of the Outlay pie? The Fed. borrows its paper into
circulation by asking moma may I to the U.S. and then loaning
to member banks? Am I right? Does the U.S. also borrow outright
by writing checks for its budgetary operations (The military,
welefare, fed. employees, etc.)?So the Outlay pie is part
or all debt borrowed check writing? So, can anyone offer
any comments to affect my feeling of specuation?
II.
a.
12 USC §95. (a) In order to provide for . resulting from
the receipt on an unsound or unsafe basis of deposits subject
to withdrawal by check, . (b) (1) In the event of . other
emergency conditions occurring in any State . caused by
acts of . of man, .. (2) For the purpose of this subsection,
the term ''State'' means any of the several States, the
District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico,
the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, the Virgin Islands,
American Samoa, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands,
or any other territory or possession of the United States.
Damn it. Could this be
tautology? They know they named them all except enclaves
within the states of the union. Doesn't "or any other" make
of "any of the several States" territories of posessions
of the United States? By sentence structure it is tautology.
b.
The whole of (a) relates to reasons for and to penalty prescription <not
relating to we the people>, the whole of (b) relates to
various modes of calling bank holidays and punishing
Fed. Reserve banks that don't keep in step <not relating
to we the people>. Please somebody who understands this,
state in 25 words or less how the American people have been
brought under war powers by THIS PROVISION. Thank you, Peoples'
Law Association/Julian:
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