notorial dissent wrote:More to the point, Stevsie, I would like to know what you think the court has misconstrued, twisted, or lizarded to use your terminology. Just what have the done that so offends your delicate sensibilities? No whining please, just your usual poorly drawn examples.
You do a lot of whining, but are surprisingly short on actual examples.
Poorly drawn examples? Lol, that's funny really considering I have directly quoted the sources many times.
The courts have attempted to determine what falls under the category of direct taxes. Their conclusion is based on nothing that's in existence. There is absolutely no support whatsoever for their conclusion. The truth is their conclusion is in direct contradiction as to what is available in documented history.
We would all have to believe the founders used words in the constitution that had been around for a very long time and had accepted meanings but secretly concocted a conspiracy behind the scenes to redefine these words to mean something else. More miraculously only the courts via their psychic god like powers were able to expose this conspiracy, which is now truth, because no documentation to support exists.
No country in the world defines direct taxes like the U.S. courts. Even though all of the founders came from countries that include a tax on income in the class of direct taxes. Did the founders ever say "Hey, we don't want the term direct tax to mean what it means every where else. We want it to mean whatever the court feels it should be", or anything like that? Of course not, not one single mention that the term is different than it has always meant.
More absurd is that people like LPC claim the direct tax clause was only put in the constitution to protect slave owners, it was a compromise. Wait, is he saying the people who comprised were so stupid that didn't even realize that the term "direct taxes" could change on demand? Certainly it offered no protection whatsoever....in fact slave owners were taxed on their slaves with a capitation tax soon after the adoption of the constitution. Wow, they must have been really stupid to buy that one eh?
In any case, there is a mountain of evidence saying a tax on revenue or income generally is a direct tax. While it is true we do not look to foreign law to determine our own. Its a little ridiculous to claim we don't look to foreign nations, specifically England, to determine what the founders meant when they used a term for taxation considering they were just under English rule where they fought a war to escape that taxation. Seriously, the proposition that we have a special meaning different that everyone else which no one even mentions once anywhere is so stupid its mind boggling.
Here's just a couple, there are many more. Remember nothing exists in documented history to support the courts position. At least I've never seen it and I've requested it for years. Maybe you'll have better luck.
I suspect you;ll resort to using the Famspear approach and deny the courts have to support their opinions on the constitution at all, making the document meaningless.
He said that, so far as he had been able to form an opinion, there had been a general concurrence in a belief that the ultimate sources of public contributions were labor, and the subjects and effects of labor; that taxes, being permanent, had a tendency to equalize, and to diffuse themselves through a community. According to these opinions, a capitation tax, and taxes on land, and on property and income generally, were a direct charge, as well in the immediate as ultimate sources of contribution.
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The Debates in the Several State Conventions on the Adoption of the Federal Constitution [Elliot's Debates, Volume 4] Direct Taxes. May 6, 1794
The most generally received opinion, however, is that, by direct taxes in the Constitution, those are meant which are raised on the capital or revenue of the people; by indirect, such as are raised on their expense.
- Albert Gallatin - Sketch of the Finances of the United States (1796)