No, I don't deny the existence of the intergovernmental immunity doctrine, but it's clear to all but the most obtuse (that's you, sport), that it doesn't apply to the federal taxation of the income of State employees. Sure, the State has to withhold and report, but this raises no constitutional problem.
It's clear? No problem? It is clear that it does not apply in following instances:
a) employee of a federal corporation for commercial purposes
b) contractor of the federal gov't or corp
c) any other instance where the burden is insignificant and where the tax is not DIRECTLY levied on the agency.
d) in a, b, and c, the gov't instrumentalities WERE immune, but not the private parties on whom the burden SQUARELY falls.
Therefore, if Title 26 imposed a burden on state employees ONLY, and an insignificant burden of lets say reporting ONLY by the states, you may be correct. But that is not the case with Title 26. It imposes a clear and direct burden on every employer, which a state agency would be. You forget to mention that states have to pay about 10% of their operating salaries in just existing and functioning as a gov't. Where in ANY of the cases we quoted so far is there a monetary burden DIRECTLY levied on the states or feds by the other?
In sum, then, under current intergovernmental tax immunity doctrine, the States can never tax the United States directly, but can tax any private
It's hard to have a rational discussion with someone who's dumber than a box of rocks and who can't distinguish between (a) the burden of higher taxes on the holder of a nonexempt municipal bond and (b) the burden on the issuer of a nonexempt bond who has to offer a higher interest rate.
Now we are equating a bondholder with an officer of a state? Officer of a state occupies public office, an inherent discharge of state rights. Are we confusing a business venture with gov't duties/rights?
I am dumber than you because i can read and i know that Title 26 would directly require States to spend upwards of 10% of their salaries if it were interpreted the way you argue. Or are you arguing that there is no direct requirement on states through Title 26 in regards to income taxation of its employees?? If that is the case, then you may know something i do not. Please teach me.
Calling me names will not change the fact that your arguments are not fully accurate or that any of you provided evidence that a direct tax levied on one gov't agency by the other gov't would not be barred by intergovernmental immunity doctrine.
At least we have recognized it exists so far, thank you for that. Now, since it exists, when do you suggest it applies then?