Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

bobhurt
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Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by bobhurt »

I just found the article below by Peter Hendrickson at http://info.themicroeffect.com/2013/06/ ... -amendment. I thought you tax whizbangs might want to explain why he's all wrong.

Pete says the 16th Amendment did not make income tax into a direct tax.

Why does it seem so much like a direct tax to me (and virtually everybody I ask about it)? If income tax isn't a direct tax, I dont' think I've ever experienced a direct tax from Congress.

What is a direct tax, anyway?

If Congress must apportion it among the states, doesn't that mean Congress must COLLECT it from the states?

Doesn't apportion mean everybody must pay the same amount in a direct tax scheme?

Doesn't "states" mean the states' governments?

How can Congress rightly tax the states (since the 17th Amendment went into effect) when the states have no representation in Congress? Wasn't taxation without representation on of the causes of the American revolution?

Okay, no more pesky questions for now. Here's Pete:

The Fascinating Truth About The 16th Amendment

MY FRIEND, ALL YOUR LIFE YOU’VE BEEN TOLD THAT THE 16TH AMENDMENT was a transformational event in the history of the United States Constitution by which an unapportioned direct federal tax on "all that comes in" was authorized. You’ve been told that the amendment reversed the preceding 137-year-old Constitutional tax structure prohibiting such taxes-- under which the American people had grown to be the freest, most prosperous, and most optimistic people in the history of the world-- in favor of a radically-different structure under which the scandal-ridden and deeply-distrusted denizens of Washington, DC were granted carte blanche to reach directly into every wallet, be it that of a Wall Street tycoon or that of the average working stiff.

Explanations as to why the rich and happy American people of the early 20th Century would do such a thing to themselves have always been vague-- they typically amount to something about a populist or progressive impulse that swept the country in favor of sticking it to the “Robber Barons”. Missing is any reason why such an impulse would embrace a universal tax reaching not just the robber barons, but their alleged victims in the working class, as well (along with every little shopkeeper, and mid-level success story working out the American dream, and everyone else, too).

Also missing from these stories is any explanation of why the several states would ratify such a tax, under which they would inevitably lose power and significance in favor of their federal competitor. Further, these stories leave out the fact that there already WAS an income tax on the books and still in force at the time of the 16th Amendment, which had been successfully deployed over the preceding 52 years without Constitutional problem, save for a single instance in which the US Supreme Court had taken issue with its application to merely two single varieties of realized income.

Indeed, these stories don’t mention that huge portions of our modern body of income tax law entirely pre-date the 16th Amendment, even though Congress actually publishes a comprehensive derivation table explicitly identifying the pre-16th-origins of these still-current statutes.

The fact is, these stories explaining the seemingly inexplicable decision of the prosperous American people of the early 20th Century to chuck a system that had served them so well for so long leave out an awful lot-- because they’re just stories. They’re fiction, so they don’t have to make sense. Those telling these stories want you to believe otherwise for reasons of their own, but the truth is, the 16th Amendment did nothing these story-tellers want you to believe it did.

Instead, the amendment merely overruled a court decision (in Pollock v. Farmer's Loan & Trust, 157 U.S. 429 (1895)) that had briefly interrupted the application of the already-long-standing tax. That decision was based on a novel argument that when applied to excisable gains realized in the form of dividends and rent, the "income" tax was transformed into a property tax on the sources from which the gains were derived.

The 16th Amendment says the Pollock court's reasoning was wrong (or, in any event, is overruled). The amendment provides that Congress can apply the "income tax" to anything that qualifies as excisable "incomes" (a subclass of privilege-based receipts, the nature of which had long been established at the time of the amendment) without the apportionment requirement arising as a result of judicial consideration of the source, as had happened in the Pollock decision:

"The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several states, and without regard to any census or enumeration."

The amendment doesn't transform the "income tax" into a direct tax, nor modify, repeal, revoke or affect the apportionment requirement for capitations and other direct taxes. It simply prohibits the courts from using the overruled reasoning of the Pollock decision to shield otherwise excisable dividends and rents from the tax. As Treasury Department legislative draftsman F. Morse Hubbard summarizes the amendment’s effect for Congress in hearing testimony in 1943:

"[T]he amendment made it possible to bring investment income within the scope of the general income-tax law, but did not change the character of the tax. It is still fundamentally an excise or duty..."

This isn’t Hubbard’s personal opinion. Almost immediately after the amendment was declared adopted in 1913, and the income tax was revived after its 18-year hiatus since the Pollock decision, the application of the tax was again challenged (in Brushaber v. Union Pacific RR Co., 240 U.S. 1 (1916)). Frank Brushaber, a New Yorker with investments in the Union Pacific Railroad Company, based his suit on a series of contentions about the 16th Amendment. The Supreme Court took the case with the intention of settling all issues regarding the purpose and meaning of the amendment and declaring the ongoing nature of the income tax as affected thereby.

The lengthy, detailed and unanimous ruling issued by the court declares that the amendment has no effect on what is and what is not subject to the income tax, and does nothing to limit or diminish the apportionment provisions in the Constitution concerning capitations or other direct taxes. Here are two more good summaries of the Brushaber ruling to add to F. Morse Hubbard’s:

"The Amendment, the [Supreme] court said, judged by the purpose for which it was passed, does not treat income taxes as direct taxes but simply removed the ground which led to their being considered as such in the Pollock case, namely, the source of the income. Therefore, they are again to be classified in the class of indirect taxes to which they by nature belong."

Cornell Law Quarterly, 1 Cornell L. Q. 298 (1915-16);

"The Supreme Court, in a decision written by Chief Justice White, first noted that the Sixteenth Amendment did not authorize any new type of tax, nor did it repeal or revoke the tax clauses of Article I of the Constitution, quoted above. Direct taxes were, notwithstanding the advent of the Sixteenth Amendment, still subject to the rule of apportionment…"

Legislative Attorney of the American Law Division of the Library of Congress Howard M. Zaritsky in his 1979 Report No. 80-19A, entitled 'Some Constitutional Questions Regarding the Federal Income Tax Laws'.

So, the class of what qualifies as "income" subject to the tax remains the same after the amendment as it had been before it. If something didn’t qualify as taxable without apportionment prior to the 16th Amendment it still cannot be taxed without apportionment. All that changed is that the application of the tax to certain of those objects can no longer be viewed as a property tax on the sources from which the “income” objects are derived, for which apportionment would be required. The Supreme Court reiterates this repeatedly:

"The Sixteenth Amendment, although referred to in argument, has no real bearing and may be put out of view. As pointed out in recent decisions, it does not extend the taxing power to new or excepted subjects..."

U.S. Supreme Court, Peck v. Lowe, 247 U.S. 165 (1918);

"[T]he settled doctrine is that the Sixteenth Amendment confers no power upon Congress to define and tax as income without apportionment something which theretofore could not have been properly regarded as income."

U.S. Supreme Court, Taft v. Bowers, 278 US 470, 481 (1929).

"[T]he sole purpose of the Sixteenth Amendment was to remove the apportionment requirement for whichever incomes were otherwise taxable. 45 Cong. Rec. 2245-2246 (1910); id. at 2539; see also Brushaber v. Union Pacific R. Co., 240 U. S. 1, 240 U. S. 17-18 (1916)"

U.S. Supreme Court, So. Carolina v. Baker, 485 U.S. 505 (1988).

Summing it all up, the 16th Amendment comes down to this: The Pollock court had said, "Congress has laid a tax on a big class of excisable objects (which it calls "incomes"), and it's all good. But when the tax is applied to dividend and rent "incomes", it actually functions as a property tax on their sources and therefore, in regard to those two "incomes", the tax has to be apportioned."

The 16th Amendment simply says, "Nix to that last bit."

THE EASIEST WAY TO COMPREHEND THE LEGAL REALITY OF THE "INCOME TAX" TODAY in light of the actual meaning and effect of the 16th Amendment is to simply think of the Pollock decision as having gone the other way. Simply imagine that the Pollock Court had upheld the application of the tax to excisable dividends and rent without apportionment, and the 16th Amendment had never happened. What we would have had from that course of events is exactly what we have now-- federal authority for an indirect excise tax falling only on objects suitable to that type of tax, unthwarted by the argument that if applied to excisable dividends and rent, that excise tax becomes a property tax requiring apportionment.

Another easy way to grasp the legal reality of the "income" tax today in light of the actual meaning and effect of the 16th Amendment is to remember that the amendment caused no change in the apportionment rule in regard to direct taxes. This means taxes on general revenues and/or the unprivileged activities which produce them-- which, as the Supreme Court has acknowledged, are among the class of direct taxes known as "capitations" in the Constitution-- remain subject to the apportionment requirement. Thus, whatever difficulty anyone may have in understanding what IS taxable under the "income" excise can be relieved by considering what ISN’T taxable under an unapportioned excise.

"If [a] tax is a direct one, it shall be apportioned according to the census or enumeration. If it is a duty, impost, or excise, it shall be uniform throughout the United States. Together, these classes include every form of tax appropriate to sovereignty. Whether the [income] tax is to be classified as an "excise" is in truth not of critical importance [for this analysis]. If not that, it is an "impost", or a "duty". A capitation or other "direct" tax it certainly is not."

U.S. Supreme Court, Steward Machine Co. v. Collector of Internal Revenue, 301 U.S. 548 (1937) (Emphasis added; citations ommitted.)

Thanks to that persistent Constitutional prohibition of unapportioned capitations, the "income tax" cannot fall on or be measured by:

"all that comes in";

"every different species of revenue";

"the fortune or revenue of each contributor";

"the [common-meaning] wages of labour";

"what is supposed to be one's fortune [per] an assessment which varies from year to year"; or

"[an assessed percentage] of [one's] supposed [commonly-defined] income").

Nor can the "income tax" fall on any other object whose nature would make the tax direct, regardless of its label.

NOW, GUESS WHAT? THE "INCOME TAX" LAWS MAKE NO ATTEMPT TO VIOLATE THESE RULES!

Though the mechanisms by which it does so are a bit difficult to find, the tax law, as written, confines itself carefully and scrupulously to gains resulting from the exercise of federal privilege, just as a federal excise tax must do. It is not by accident or oversight that the "wages" by which the application of the tax to the pay of workers is measured are custom-defined in the law to describe only payments made to federal workers, for instance, or that "trade or business" is defined only as "the performance of the functions of a public office."

***

THAT’S IT, MY FRIEND! Now you know that the 16th Amendment never authorized an unapportioned general tax (and I suspect you’re beginning to realize that for all of your working life you’ve probably been victimized by the misapplication of what the “income tax” really is).

Frankly, I imagine that you’ve always suspected this. After all, the 16th Amendment is a Constitutional amendment, the highest possible expression of the popular will possible, and the mythology about the amendment says it was intended to authorize a universal tax on everyone’s revenue. And yet, 30 years goes by after its adoption in 1913 before more than a small fraction of Americans are affected in any way by the income tax!

Plainly, had the 16th Amendment actually been meant to authorize a universal tax, we would have seen income tax filings by every adult American no later than 1914 and every year from there forward. In reality though, only 9.36% of all money-making Americans had occasion to file any kind of tax document in any year from 1913 to 1939, on average.

This was a period at the very beginning of which even simple factory workers were making $1,500 a year (with pay-rates climbing), and while the tax-rates only exempted $1,000 of “income”. But back then everyone understood that the $1,000 of exempted gains-- and the amounts above that to which the “income tax” applied-- were different kind of gains from the unprivileged variety received by factory workers and most everyone else.

In fact, the very highest annual percentage of “income tax”-filing money-making Americans for the whole period (which included World War I and the "Roaring Twenties") was only 17.3%. It was not until the early 1940s, in the midst of World War II, that the percentage cracked 50%, which only happened after decades of relentless disinformation about the nature of the 16th Amendment and the meaning of "income" by corrupt elements of a revenue-hungry state, beneficiaries of misunderstanding in professions like tax law and accounting, and “progressives” who had always wanted a universal tax and saw an opportunity to get one by subterfuge.

This campaign of corruption on behalf of spreading misunderstanding of the income tax was assisted by increasingly widespread public-schooling in which was taught a worship of the state, propaganda resources which included exhortations by the likes of Donald Duck, and ten years of deep mental softening taking place during the rigors of the Great Depression. Needless to say, no such campaign would have been undertaken had the 16th Amendment actually authorized the general tax in which you are constantly invited to believe. When was the last time you were regaled with appeals to “pay property taxes” by a cartoon animal in a state-financed film?

Unfortunately, the campaign succeeded. You were invited to believe the Leviathan-serving mythology about the 16th Amendment, and you did. In thrall to that myth, you have made the income tax a reality in your own life, despite it likely having no actual legal application to your activities. In thrall to that myth, you have been actively declaring your unprivileged earnings to be the privileged kind to which the “income tax” that we really DO have actually applies. You can get a good idea of how that works by reading the little story of ‘Bob’s Bicycles’.

I’LL LEAVE IT TO YOU TO DECIDE the significance of this truth about the “income tax amendment”. But if you wish, go to losthorizons.com, where you’ll find it all laid out in painstaking detail, including, among much else, exactly what this knowledge has meant for the tens of thousands of Americans who have been using it to reclaim complete authority over property they otherwise had lost (or would lose) to a tax which has proven to not apply to their activities and earnings (including the “Social Security” and “Medicare” versions of the tax). I’m not talking about some abstract legal claim. I’m talking about checks in the mailbox-- refund checks of every penny withheld and every penny paid-in, plus interest in many cases. See a representative sampling of 850 or so checks, credits, transcripts, and so on at the losthorizons.com bulletin board.

More important by far than the money, though, is the reclaiming of rightful authority over the power which attends control of that wealth. Individual control of that power is central to the Founders’ Constitutional design for maintaining a limited government subject to the rule of law, because the Constitution does not enforce itself, and left undefended by grown-up American men and women, it is the natural course of things for liberty to yield and for government to gain ground.

The Founders’ design relies on you acting on behalf of your own interests and retaining control of your own wealth and property. By doing so, you function as part of an invisible hand imposing restraint and discipline on the federal government, keeping it small, obedient and respectful, as it is intended to be. Small, obedient and respectful government results in freedom and prosperity for all Americans.

This "invisible hand" restraint operates just like Adam Smith's better-known economic "invisible hand" engine-of-prosperity. Like its counterpart, the restraint-engine is fueled by millions of decisions intended only to benefit each American individually, which nonetheless act organically to benefit all by keeping the state small and harmless to liberty. For nearly all of the 150 years or so during which the restraint-engine ran strong before sputtering into "idle" in the 1940s, the state remained in harness and the American people grew in prosperity while preserving their liberties.

This "invisible hand" engine of freedom is, in fact, the ONLY mechanism whereby effective constraints can be laid on the state. Certainly the founding generation felt this way, as evidenced by the prescriptions and proscriptions within the federal charter. Had the framers been willing to rely upon the political process to keep the state under control, no rules concerning the taxing power would have been seen as necessary.

AS I NOTED ABOVE, THOUGH, RESPONSIBILITY FOR KEEPING the framers' engine of freedom humming along is on you and me. In the absence of countervailing pressure from individual men and women, dangerous-- even ruinous-- state power automatically grows.

We’re suffering from the effects of long years of individual irresponsibility today. Still, even as far gone to neglect as we are right now, all that is needed to set things right is for each of us to rise to our feet and do our part.

Learn more, spread the word, and act, my friend. Liberty is just over the horizon.
notorial dissent
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by notorial dissent »

bobhurt wrote:I just found the article below by Peter Hendrickson at http://info.themicroeffect.com/2013/06/ ... -amendment. I thought you tax whizbangs might want to explain why he's all wrong.

Pete says the 16th Amendment did not make income tax into a direct tax.
I'm shocked i tell you, shocked. Prattlin' Pete actually got one right. Although for all the wrong reasons.

No one, at least with an IQ above room temperature, ever said the 16th turned the Income Tax in to a direct tax. For the quite simple and exact reason that whatever it is, and I don't care to debate that bit of nit pickery with anyone, the 16th says that IT DOESN'T MATTER, that a tax on incomes did not need to be apportioned or otherwise qualified, but that there shall be a tax on incomes. It applies to everyone equally, and it doesn't matter where the income comes from.

Pete's tortured logic notwithstanding, it allows an unapportioned tax on incomes.

The rest of your inane questions are moot since your premise fails from the beginning.

That simple enough for you? I know it is too simple for Prattlin' Pete, but then he still can't get the definition of "includes" right either.
The fact that you sincerely and wholeheartedly believe that the “Law of Gravity” is unconstitutional and a violation of your sovereign rights, does not absolve you of adherence to it.
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by fortinbras »

Amazing. Hendrickson tells the truth, mostly.

My own research tells me that there are and were divided opinions whether the income tax is a direct or an indirect tax. But the purpose of the 16th Amendment is that, whatever it may be, it (that is, the income tax) is now assured of being allowed and there's no longer any point in quibbling whether the income tax is direct or not. It is worth mentioning that the 16th Amendment also says "from whatever source", which also silences a lot of the quibbling about the Civil War income tax.

The US adopted the income tax as a source of govt revenue to replace the previously used source - high tariffs on imports. The high tariffs had (1) raised prices on lots of stuff using foreign-made ingredients and (2) provoked all the other countries into imposing high tarrifs on American exports, thereby hobbling our own industry. By eliminating the tariffs - something done in the very same law that set up the income tax system - the US was able to become the international trade powerhouse that it grew into.
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by wserra »

fortinbras wrote:Amazing. Hendrickson tells the truth, mostly.
Hendrickson's "reasoning":

Before the 16th Amendment, per Pollock, Congress could not tax all types of income without apportionment.
The 16th Amendment conferred on Congress no new taxing powers.
Therefore Congress still lacks the power to tax all types of income without apportionment, and the 16th Amendment does nothing at all.

Moreover, even though Congress had the power to tax wages before the 16th Amendment, that Amendment - which otherwise did nothing at all - nonetheless magically deprived Congress of the power to tax wages.

You're a generous man, fortinbras.
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Famspear
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by Famspear »

As others have noted above, Hendrickson actually gets it partly right -- in the trip on his journey to the wrong place.

Again, some modern courts have referred to the Federal income tax as a "direct tax" and others have referred to it as an indirect tax or excise.

The point that protesters like Hendrickson refuse to accept is that it does not matter whether a given federal income tax is "direct" or not. NO FEDERAL INCOME TAX AFTER THE SIXTEENTH AMENDMENT IS REQUIRED TO BE APPORTIONED. The apportionment requirement was the requirement involved in the Pollock decision, and the Sixteenth Amendment overruled or reversed the effect of the Pollock decision.

Hendrickson's central premise (and I'm paraphrasing) -- that income does not include earnings realized in an activity not connected to the exercise of a "federal privilege" -- is fundamentally false. His argument has been rejected in federal court over and over and over and over and over and over. Every single time. No exceptions.

The "privilege" argument -- that is, a form of that argument -- first surfaced in about 1980 in the Buras case (about 67 years after the Sixteenth Amendment). In United States v. Buras, the argument that the taxpayer can be subject to an excise tax (specifically, the federal income tax) only if he benefits from a "privilege extended by a government agency" was rejected by the United States Court of Appeals for the Ninth Circuit. See 633 F.2d 1356 (9th Cir. 1980), at http://scholar.google.com/scholar_case? ... 81&scilh=0

Some of the tenets of the theory Hendrickson uses in his scam are:
.....unprivileged, outside-of-federal-geographical-jurisdiction work cannot be taxed indirectly by the federal government.
---From p. 10, Peter E. Hendrickson, ''Cracking the Code: The Fascinating Truth About Taxation in America'' (12th Printing, Jan. 2010).
.....private-sector proceeds of work (in particular) cannot be taxed under an 'income' tax.
---Peter E. Hendrickson, from p. 25, ''Cracking the Code''.
.....'income', 'wages', 'self-employment income', 'employee', 'employer' and 'trade or business' – as these and certain other terms are used within, and in regard to, the tax law – have narrow legal meanings exclusively involving, and applying to, certain privileged activities, such as holding or administering a government office, or working in one.
---Peter E. Hendrickson, from introductory material, ''Cracking the Code''.
.....the law doesn't apply the income tax to his or her [an individual's] non-federally-connected earnings.....
---Peter E. Hendrickson, from his "Cracking the Code" web site forum.

All those tenets are false.

And, as the United States Court of Appeals for the Eighth Circuit has stated: "There is no constitutional impediment to levying an income tax on compensation for a taxpayer's labors." See Funk v. Commissioner, 687 F.2d 264 (8th Cir. 1982) (per curiam).

Joseph Alan Fennell was a follower of the ''Cracking the Code'' tax scam -- a scam which has as its basis the erroneous and frivolous contention that "income" for federal income tax purposes means only amounts received in an activity connected to the exercise of a federal privilege. Fennell's arguments — that the compensation he received in exchange for non-federally privileged private sector labor was not taxable, and that non-federally privileged private sector labor is not the subject of an excise (the U.S. federal income tax) — were rejected by the United States Tax Court. See Fennell v. Commissioner, Docket No. 26285-07L, United States Tax Court, Order of Dismissal and Decision (June 17, 2008).

In another ''Cracking the Code'' tax scam case, the individual argued that he was due a federal tax refund because his compensation constituted "earnings for private-sector, non-federally-privileged work" that he had performed as an engineer for his employer. The Tax Court ruled that the argument was "frivolous and groundless," and imposed a separate penalty of $5,000 under section 6673 for engaging in frivolous litigation. Ragan v. Commissioner, Docket No. 11966-08L, United States Tax Court, Order and Decision (Feb. 19, 2009).

In yet another ''Cracking the Code'' case involving an individual named David Nelson, the magistrate judge (and the U.S. district court) stated: "The fact that Northwest [Nelson's employer] is a 'private sector company, which is not owned or operated on behalf of the United States' [ . . . ] is immaterial to the question of whether the remuneration Northwest paid Nelson for his work was 'compensation for services' within the meaning of 26 U.S.C. § 61(a)(1). It clearly was." Nelson v. United States, No. 3:08-cv-00508-MCR-EMT, U.S. District Court for the Northern District of Florida (Dec. 7, 2009), aff'd, No. 10-10730, U.S. Court of Appeals for the Eleventh Circuit (Aug. 12, 2010) (unpublished) ("We have repeatedly rejected arguments, such as Nelson's, asserting that private sector employment income is not subject to federal taxation.").

The federal privilege argument also fails for the simple reason that the income tax can be imposed on illegal income. An illegal activity, a criminal activity, is not an activity involving a federal privilege. Under the James Doctrine, as explained in a U.S. Supreme Court decision over fifty years ago, the receipt of money by an embezzler is included in the income of that embezzler under the Internal Revenue Code, even though the money does not belong to the embezzler, and even though he is required to return the money to its rightful owner. James v. United States, 366 U.S. 213 (1961).

The argument that the federal income tax can be imposed only on amounts received while the individual is engaged in an activity in connection with the exercise of a federal privilege is also incorrect for the simple reason that an indirect tax (an "excise") does not need to relate to an activity at all. For example, one of the points made by the Supreme Court in explaining its holdings in National Federation of Independent Business v. Sebelius, no. 11-393; no. 11-398; no. 11-400 (slip opinion, U.S. Supreme Court, June 28, 2012) is: The Constitution does not guarantee that individuals may avoid taxation through inactivity (page 41 of the slip opinion). The tax in that case is the "shared responsibility payment," the penalty under section 5000A of the Internal Revenue Code imposed on certain persons who do not purchase health insurance. That section 5000A tax is not an income tax but, like the federal income tax, it is generally considered to be an ''excise'' (an ''indirect tax'') for purposes of the U.S. Constitution. Not only is the section 5000A tax not connected to an activity involving a federal privilege, it is not connected to an activity at all. Indeed, the point that it is a tax on inactivity (a failure to purchase insurance) was one of the objections raised by those opposed to the tax in the ''National Federation'' case -- and the Supreme Court rejected that objection by noting that the Congress can indeed validly impose an excise -- an indirect tax (which of course does not have to be apportioned) -- on ''inactivity''.

The ''Cracking the Code'' theory -- that all federal excises must involve an activity connected to the exercise of a federal privilege -- is frivolous. Peter Hendrickson, the promoter of the scam, is under a federal court order never to use the scam again on his own tax returns. See United States v. Hendrickson, 2007 WL 2385071, at *3, 100 A.F.T.R.2nd 2007-5395, No. 06-11753, U.S. District Court for the Eastern District of Michigan (Feb. 26, 2007, amended May 2, 2007), aff'd, No. 07-1510, U.S. Court of Appeals for the Sixth Circuit (June 11, 2008) (sanctions of $4,000 imposed for frivolous appeal), reh'g en banc denied (Dec. 16, 2008), cert. denied, U.S. Supreme Court, No. 08-1399 (June 15, 2009), reh'g denied, U.S. Supreme Court (August 17, 2009). Indeed, he spent time in federal prison (from June 29, 2010 to June 13, 2012) for using the scam on his own tax returns. See generally United States v. Hendrickson, 2010 TNT 81-15, n. 5, No. 2:08-cr-20585-DML-DAS, U.S. District Court for the Eastern District of Michigan (April 26, 2010), aff'd in part and rev'd in part, No. 10-1726, United States Court of Appeals for the Sixth Circuit (Feb. 8, 2012) (conviction affirmed; sentencing vacated and remanded for re-sentencing), cert. denied, U.S. Supreme Court, No. 11-1345 (June 11, 2012).
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fortinbras
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by fortinbras »

The Supreme Court said that the 16th Amendment gave the govt no new powers -- because the govt could already impose taxes on various things (Art. I, sec. 8, cl. 1), But the 16th Amendment removed a restriction on one particular type of tax (removing apportionment for the income tax); a restriction that otherwise existed if the income tax were direct (Art. I, sec. 9, cl. 4). There had been some arguing back and forth about whether the income tax was direct or indirect taxation, but whichever it might be, the 16th Amendment made the issue moot by eliminating the one restriction that applied if it were direct.

So the 16th Amendment really did give the Congress something - the ability to impose an income tax without having to set up a cumbersome apportionment system. It also gave Congress the very broad power to determine what constituted taxable income, by allowing the taxation of income "from whatever source derived".
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by Famspear »

Bob Hurt wrote:
Pete says the 16th Amendment did not make income tax into a direct tax.
Pete is correct. His problem is that his conclusion doesn't take him where he wants to go. Pete wants the law to be that his private sector, non-federally privileged earnings should not be taxable for federal income tax purposes. Those earnings are, however, taxable for federal income tax purposes.
Why does it seem so much like a direct tax to me (and virtually everybody I ask about it)? If income tax isn't a direct tax, I dont' think I've ever experienced a direct tax from Congress.
It seems like a direct tax because it's imposed "directly" on YOUR income. But that's not the definition of a "direct tax" under the U.S. Constitution. Why do you people have such a hard time understanding that the same word has more than one meaning?
What is a direct tax, anyway?
There are two types of direct taxes in the constitutional law sense: A head tax, or capitation (such as $10 per person per year), and a national property tax (a tax on property by reason of its ownership). The current Internal Revenue Code contains no provision imposing either of these kinds of taxes. Now, SOME modern courts still refer to the income tax as a "direct tax." However, even if a given federal income tax is considered to be a "direct tax," it is not required to be apportioned. Period. See the Sixteenth Amendment. The Amendment does not differentiate between "income taxes considered to be direct taxes" and "income taxes not considered to be direct taxes." READ THE SIXTEENTH AMENDMENT. It means exactly what it says.
If Congress must apportion it among the states, doesn't that mean Congress must COLLECT it from the states?
By "it," I assume you mean "federal income tax." Under the Sixteenth Amendment, there is no requirement that Congress apportion a federal income tax among the states. READ THE AMENDMENT. It doesn't matter whether the income tax is considered a "direct tax" or not.
Doesn't apportion mean everybody must pay the same amount in a direct tax scheme?
Not necessarily. Apportionment of a direct tax means apportionment among the states according to population. As a practical matter, that might indeed mean that each taxpayer would be paying the same amount.
Doesn't "states" mean the states' governments?
No. This is an old, old tax protester misconception – that the reference to "apportioned among the states" means "apportioned among the state GOVERNMENTS", and that somehow the state governments are the entities liable for the tax. Totally false.
How can Congress rightly tax the states (since the 17th Amendment went into effect) when the states have no representation in Congress? Wasn't taxation without representation on of the causes of the American revolution?
Again, "states" does not mean "state governments" in this context. The PEOPLE of each state have representation in Congress.
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by Cpt Banjo »

Famspear wrote:For example, one of the points made by the Supreme Court in explaining its holdings in National Federation of Independent Business v. Sebelius, no. 11-393; no. 11-398; no. 11-400 (slip opinion, U.S. Supreme Court, June 28, 2012) is: The Constitution does not guarantee that individuals may avoid taxation through inactivity (page 41 of the slip opinion). The tax in that case is the "shared responsibility payment," the penalty under section 5000A of the Internal Revenue Code imposed on certain persons who do not purchase health insurance. That section 5000A tax is not an income tax but, like the federal income tax, it is generally considered to be an ''excise'' (an ''indirect tax'') for purposes of the U.S. Constitution. Not only is the section 5000A tax not connected to an activity involving a federal privilege, it is not connected to an activity at all. Indeed, the point that it is a tax on inactivity (a failure to purchase insurance) was one of the objections raised by those opposed to the tax in the ''National Federation'' case -- and the Supreme Court rejected that objection by noting that the Congress can indeed validly impose an excise -- an indirect tax (which of course does not have to be apportioned) -- on ''inactivity''.
I have previously expressed my disappointment with the majority's analysis of the direct tax issue -- namely, that the category of direct taxes shouldn't have automatically been confined to capitations and taxes on the ownership of property and that the Court should have considered the unprecedented nature of the mandate tax in determining whether it might be a new kind of direct tax. In other words, since heretofore all indirect taxes have been based on some kind of activity, can the mandate tax qualify as an indirect tax? Quite frankly, I find the portion of Roberts's opinion dealing with the power to tax inactivity very unconvincing, since all of the examples he gives in support of taxing inactivity involve either direct taxes or taxes on activities, and I wish that some of the dissenters had gone into the issue in more depth (it's not surprising that they didn't, since the parties didn't fully brief the issue). Having said that, however, one should note that the opinion states that the mandate tax isn't just based on inactivity:
The whole point of the shared responsibility payment is that it is triggered by specific circumstances—earning a certain amount of income but not obtaining health insurance.
Does this mean that inactivity can be taxed if it applies only if the taxpayer has at least engaged in the activity of receiving some minimum level of income? Probably not. A $100 tax on every citizen or resident of the United States with an exemption for those with incomes below a certain level would still be a capitation. But query whether a tax (in an amount that wouldn't be considered a penalty) imposed for failing to do something that wasn't coupled with a minimum income requirement would still be treated as an indirect tax. I would hope not, but given the extreme deference the Court has shown to Congress regarding tax matters, I wouldn't bet on it.
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by fortinbras »

Here's a Rhode Island legislator talking stupid about the 16th Amendment:

http://www.politifact.com/rhode-island/ ... s-rhode-i/

[Moderator (The Observer): Deleted political comment. Please refrain from referencing political figures unless they are directly involved in a tax scam, tax protestor or fraud issue]
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by Famspear »

Cpt Banjo wrote:I have previously expressed my disappointment with the majority's analysis of the direct tax issue -- namely, that the category of direct taxes shouldn't have automatically been confined to capitations and taxes on the ownership of property and that the Court should have considered the unprecedented nature of the mandate tax in determining whether it might be a new kind of direct tax. In other words, since heretofore all indirect taxes have been based on some kind of activity.....
I would argue that the term "activity" is something of a term of art in the federal tax law -- generally applying to some sort of affirmative action by the taxpayer (such as by engaging in a trade or business). I think your argument would work better if we said "all indirect taxes have previously been based on the occurrence of some sort of event, whether involving an 'activity' or not." The term "event" is more broad than the term "activity." A few courts have even used the term "taxable event."

An example of a taxable event arguably not involving an "activity" (at least, no human activity) would be the situation where a large, sold gold meteorite lands on your property. If, under local law, that large nugget becomes your property at the moment of impact, I think that's a taxable event -- even though the taxpayer has not been engaging in any sort of "activity" in an effort to obtain that meteorite. The fair market value of the gold might be includible in income in the year in which the meteorite lands on your property.

On the other hand, maybe you could make some sort of argument that there has to be a human "activity" after all -- in that the taxpayer must affirmatively express the intent to take possession of the meteorite before the income event is deemed to have occurred. What if the meteorite landed on your 100 acre plot of land, somewhere way in the woods in the back somewhere, in year 1, and you didn't discover it until year 3? Assuming there were some way to tell that the meteorite landed in year 1, should you have to go back and amend your return for year 1? Or, does the taxable event occur in year 3, when you discover the object? Is your discovery of the object the "activity" that constitutes the taxable event?

On the other hand, what if we find that someone came on to our property in year 1, before we knew about the meteorite, and took the nugget away without permission? Would we win on the argument that the meteorite was our property in year 1, and that it should be returned to us? If so, should the "income event" be considered to have occurred in year 1, even though we engaged in no human "activity" in year 1 with respect to the nugget?

I seem to recall that in the early cases on oil and gas law in Texas, the "rule of capture" -- the rule that had been applied to ownership of captured wild animals (the lawyers here may remember Pierson v. Post from first year law school property courses) -- was used with respect to ownership of oil and gas minerals under the surface of a person's land. Is a solid gold meteorite that falls on my land considered to be a "mineral" for this purpose? Is the meteorite not really "mine" until I affirmatively reduce it to possession? And if so, does that mean that only by claiming it or reducing it to possession can I have realized "income"?

Ummmmm....

Did I.....

Did I just digress?

:oops:
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by Cpt Banjo »

Famspear wrote:I would argue that the term "activity" is something of a term of art in the federal tax law -- generally applying to some sort of affirmative action by the taxpayer (such as by engaging in a trade or business). I think your argument would work better if we said "all indirect taxes have previously been based on the occurrence of some sort of event, whether involving an 'activity' or not." The term "event" is more broad than the term "activity." A few courts have even used the term "taxable event."
I would agree, and I confess that I was using "activity" in the broadest sense of something happening.
What if the meteorite landed on your 100 acre plot of land, somewhere way in the woods in the back somewhere, in year 1, and you didn't discover it until year 3? Assuming there were some way to tell that the meteorite landed in year 1, should you have to go back and amend your return for year 1? Or, does the taxable event occur in year 3, when you discover the object? Is your discovery of the object the "activity" that constitutes the taxable event?
I think the activity would be reducing it to possession. Regarding the timing of inclusion in gross income, the only case I know of is Cesarini v. U.S., 428 F2d 812 (6th Cir. 1970), in which the taxpayer discovered $4,467 hidden in a piano bought for $15 at an auction seven years earlier; the court held that the money was reduced to undisputed possession in the year of discovery and not in the year the taxpayer bought the piano. Of course, one might distinguish this case from the meteorite hypothetical because in Cesarini there was a previous owner, whereas the meteorite had been owned by no one.
I seem to recall that in the early cases on oil and gas law in Texas, the "rule of capture" -- the rule that had been applied to ownership of captured wild animals (the lawyers here may remember Pierson v. Post from first year law school property courses) -- was used with respect to ownership of oil and gas minerals under the surface of a person's land. Is a solid gold meteorite that falls on my land considered to be a "mineral" for this purpose? Is the meteorite not really "mine" until I affirmatively reduce it to possession? And if so, does that mean that only by claiming it or reducing it to possession can I have realized "income"?
Funny you should mention a meteorite example. The very first class I had in law school was property, and the very first opinion in the casebook was Goddard v. Winchell, an 1892 Iowa Supreme Court case in which the issue was the ownership of a meteorite. The opinion began, "Action in replevin", which was a very discouraging way to begin law school because I didn't have a the faintest clue what replevin meant (note to nonlawyers: it was an old common law action used in cases brought to recover specific items of personal property). Anyway, A owned the land on which it had fallen, B was A's tenant under a grass lease, C had dug up the meteorite in B's presence and took it home, and D was the person C sold it to. A sued D, and the court held for A under the rule that what naturally becomes part of the land belongs to the owner of the land.
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by LPC »

bobhurt wrote:Pete says the 16th Amendment did not make income tax into a direct tax.
That would be correct, because direct taxes must be apportioned, and the 16th Amendment states that income taxes do NOT need to be apportioned.

One of the questions raised in Brushaber was whether the 16th Amendment created a type of tax that need be neither apportioned nor uniform, and the court rejected that possibility, stating (in a rather convoluted sentence):

“[T]hat the contention that the Amendment treats a tax on income as a direct tax although it is relieved from apportionment and is necessarily therefore not subject to the rule of uniformity as such rule only applies to taxes which are not direct, thus destroying the two great classifications which have been recognized and enforced from the beginning, is also wholly without foundation since the command of the Amendment that all income taxes shall not be subject to apportionment by a consideration of the sources from which the taxed income may be derived forbids the application to such taxes of the rule applied in the Pollock Case by which alone such taxes were removed from the great class of excises, duties, and imposts subject to the rule of uniformity, and were placed under the other or direct class.” Brushaber v. Union Pacific Railroad Co., 240 U.S. 1 (1916).

So, what the 16th Amendment did was make income taxes "indirect" (or "not direct").
bobhurt wrote:Why does it seem so much like a direct tax to me (and virtually everybody I ask about it)? If income tax isn't a direct tax, I dont' think I've ever experienced a direct tax from Congress.
You're right, you've never experienced a direct tax. The last direct tax enacted by Congress was the act of Aug. 5, 1861, c. 45, 12 id. 294, which was a tax levied on the value of real estate. So, if you're younger than 152, you've never experienced a direct tax.
bobhurt wrote:What is a direct tax, anyway?
A capitation is a direct tax, and a tax on the value of real estate has also been considered a direct tax. In the Pollock case, the Supreme Court considered that a tax on the value of intangible property (such as stocks and bonds) was also a direct tax.
bobhurt wrote:If Congress must apportion it among the states, doesn't that mean Congress must COLLECT it from the states?
No.
bobhurt wrote:Doesn't apportion mean everybody must pay the same amount in a direct tax scheme?
No, quite the opposite. A tax that is apportioned must be divided among the states in proportion to population, but with slaves treated as only three fifths of a person. Under those circumstances, and as long as slavery existed, the residents of different states could *never* have the same tax liability.

Now, once slavery was abolished, capitations would have become uniform, but taxes on real estate would have remained disproportionate because the ratio of property values to population was not going to be equal throughout the United States.

Indirect taxes must be uniform throughout the United States, but direct taxes, which must be apportioned, are inherently unequal.
bobhurt wrote:Doesn't "states" mean the states' governments?
No.
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by AndyK »

1 - Bob Hurt has yet to find an anti-tax argument -- however flimsey or irrational -- which he doesn't like. Any post initiated by him citing a breakthrough in anti-income tax research warrants an immediate catapult of cows with poor French accents.

2 - Blowhard Pete has thrown a rock at the side of a barn and then painted a series of bull's eyes around the point of impact. Pete decided quite a few years ago that he neither wants nor is required to pay income taxes. He then turned his citation-salad generator to pervert various court decisions, tax code sections, and regulations into what he wants them to mean .

It doesn't matter that every single one of his theories or arguments has been specifically refuted by one or more courts. It doesn't matter that Pete has been incarcerated TWICE for his anti-tax activities.

Pete knows that he is right. He will go to his grave (taking many others with him) swearing that he is right and that the system has been perverted and corrupted specifically against him.

His wife is likely to go to prison, in the near future, for standing by her man. Pete doesn't care. He is right and the rest of the world is wrong.
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by Colonel_Buck »

A capitation is a direct tax, and a tax on the value of real estate has also been considered a direct tax. In the Pollock case, the Supreme Court considered that a tax on the value of intangible property (such as stocks and bonds) was also a direct tax.


But isn't there a difference between A) a tax on something, and B) a tax on the income derived from that something?

A) would be a direct tax?
B) would be an indirect tax?

And it's not necessary for a tax on real estate (a direct tax?) be calculated based on it's value, is it? How about square footage? Location? Number of trees growing on the property? Anything would do, right? And it still is a direct tax, right?

Wasn't the tax referred to in Pollock a tax on the income derived from the property and not a tax on the property itself? If so, isn't the decision rather foolish because they confused an indirect tax on the income from the property with a direct tax on the property itself?

And, as far as capitations go, can't the health care mandate be considered a capitation?

Can't it be considered a capitation tax on everyone with an exemption granted to those who already have health insurance?
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by Famspear »

Colonel_Buck wrote:
A capitation is a direct tax, and a tax on the value of real estate has also been considered a direct tax. In the Pollock case, the Supreme Court considered that a tax on the value of intangible property (such as stocks and bonds) was also a direct tax.


But isn't there a difference between A) a tax on something, and B) a tax on the income derived from that something?

A) would be a direct tax?
B) would be an indirect tax?
I would think that in general, the answers to all those questions would be yes. There is a difference between a tax "on something" and a tax on "income from something." And the answers to A and B would both be yes, generally.
And it's not necessary for a tax on real estate (a direct tax?) be calculated based on it's value, is it? How about square footage? Location? Number of trees growing on the property? Anything would do, right? And it still is a direct tax, right?
Excellent questions. I would think all those would be direct taxes, if they're imposed on the owner of the property by reason of his/her ownership.
Wasn't the tax referred to in Pollock a tax on the income derived from the property and not a tax on the property itself? If so, isn't the decision rather foolish because they confused an indirect tax on the income from the property with a direct tax on the property itself?
Yes, but (playing devil's advocate on behalf of the Supreme Court in 1895) I think that the Court in Pollock was trying to do an early version of "substance over form" by saying that a tax on income from property had the same economic effect as tax on the property itself.
And, as far as capitations go, can't the health care mandate be considered a capitation?

Can't it be considered a capitation tax on everyone with an exemption granted to those who already have health insurance?
I think that was sort of one of the arguments that was made (either before the Supreme Court or in some of the scholarly articles). I think the argument is weak, though, in that it "proves too much." If you wanted to, you could recharacterize almost any sort of tax as being "considered" to be "something else." Indeed, trying to re-define the individual mandate as a capitation (that is, recharacterizing an excise as a direct tax) is arguably falling into the same line of reasoning that the Court in Pollock did.

Interesting argument, though.
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Paul

Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by Paul »

And, as far as capitations go, can't the health care mandate be considered a capitation?

Can't it be considered a capitation tax on everyone with an exemption granted to those who already have health insurance?
I believe it is. A capitation is a tax on doing nothing, IF the health care mandate is a tax, it's a tax on doing nothing other than being alive and within the jurisdiction of Congress. It's not an excise -- an excise is imposed on doing something.
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by Famspear »

Paul wrote:
And, as far as capitations go, can't the health care mandate be considered a capitation?

Can't it be considered a capitation tax on everyone with an exemption granted to those who already have health insurance?
I believe it is. A capitation is a tax on doing nothing, IF the health care mandate is a tax, it's a tax on doing nothing other than being alive and within the jurisdiction of Congress. It's not an excise -- an excise is imposed on doing something.
Interesting argument, but there is no federal court holding to the effect that all excises must be imposed on doing something to be valid.

The Internal Revenue Code section 4971(a)(1) tax is arguably imposed on "inactivity" if you will -- that is, on the failure to pay the minimum required contributions to a plan to which section 412 applies.

Under section 4980B, a tax is arguably imposed on "inactivity" -- i.e., the failure of a group health plan to meet certain requirements of section 4980B(f) with respect to a qualified beneficiary.

I would argue that neither of these taxes is a tax on "doing nothing other than being alive and within the jurisdiction of Congress." But I would argue that they are taxes on inactivity.

Similarly, I would argue that the section 5000A penalty, the so-called mandate, is not merely a tax on "doing nothing other than being alive and within the jurisdiction of Congress." It's a penalty for inactivity -- for failure to do something: failure to maintain certain health insurance coverage.

For our purposes, the most significant difference between, say, the section 4971(a)(1) tax and the section 5000A penalty might be the fact that in the case of the former, the taxpayer had previously done something -- engaged in an "activity" -- by setting up a section 412 plan and more or less agreeing to be bound by the rules for such plans. By contrast, in the case of the section 5000A penalty, there really is no previous activity by the taxpayer that "justifies" (using that word broadly) the imposition of the penalty.

The argument that the section 5000A penalty is a capitation is an interesting argument.
Capitation tax. A poll tax (q.v.).
--Black's Law Dictionary, p. 191 (5th ed. 1979).
Poll-tax. A capitation tax; a tax of a specific sum levied upon each person within the jurisdiction of the taxing power and within a certain class (as, all males of a certain age, etc.) without reference to his property or lack of it.
--Black's Law Dictionary, p. 1043 (5th ed. 1979).

However, the U.S. Supreme Court rejected the argument that the section 5000A penalty is a capitation.
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by Famspear »

Here's what the Supreme Court said about the section 5000A penalty with respect to the definition of a "capitation":
A tax on going without health insurance does not fall within any recognized category of direct tax. It is not a capitation. Capitations are taxes paid by every person, “without regard to property, profession, or any other circumstance.” Hylton, supra, at 175 (opinion of Chase, J.) (emphasis altered). The whole point of the shared responsibility payment is that it is triggered by specific circumstances—earning a certain amount of income but not obtaining health insurance. The payment is also plainly not a tax on the ownership of land or personal property. The shared responsibility payment is thus not a direct tax that must be apportioned among the several States.
--from National Federation of Independent Business v. Sebelius, no. 11-393; no. 11-398; no. 11-400 (slip opinion, U.S. Supreme Court, June 28, 2012).
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by Cpt Banjo »

Famspear wrote:Interesting argument, but there is no federal court holding to the effect that all excises must be imposed on doing something to be valid.
That's not surprising, since all excises have heretofore involved an event of some kind.
I would argue that neither of these taxes is a tax on "doing nothing other than being alive and within the jurisdiction of Congress." But I would argue that they are taxes on inactivity.
I would argue that the activity was maintaining the plan.
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Re: Hendrickson Explains the 16th Amendment

Post by Famspear »

Cpt Banjo wrote:
Famspear wrote:Interesting argument, but there is no federal court holding to the effect that all excises must be imposed on doing something to be valid.
That's not surprising, since all excises have heretofore involved an event of some kind.
Maybe. Maybe someone should have previously litigated the constitutionality of section 4971 or section 4980B years ago and, in the course of such litigation, obtained a ruling on whether the taxes imposed under those provisions are taxes on events. Very broadly speaking, the nonoccurrence of an activity -- in terms of the expiration of a specified period of time without the activity occurring within that period of time -- might be considered an "event" in some sense.

Famspear wrote:
I would argue that neither of these taxes is a tax on "doing nothing other than being alive and within the jurisdiction of Congress." But I would argue that they are taxes on inactivity.
Banjo wrote:
I would argue that the activity was maintaining the plan.
And the counter-argument would be that the activity of maintaining the plan is not precisely what is being taxed -- under either section 4971 or section 4980B. What is being taxed (under the counter-argument) is the specified inactivity - the failure to do some specific thing with respect to the plan.
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