It's in the fact that the statutes in question makes it clear that jurisdiction attaches because a crime is committed within the jurisdiction of a given court. Again, just because the law doesn't use the specific words which you want to see doesn't mean that consent is required. You'd also better believe that people like Bernie Madoff and Kenneth Lay were able to afford the best in legal representation; yet the best criminal defense lawyers in American history (Clarence Darrow comes to mind) never suggested that their clients must consent to jurisdiction before a court may try them. Appellate court cases are the standard in interpreting a law; thus, if the law does not say that consent is required, and there are no appellate cases saying that consent is required, then consent is NOT required.ngupowered wrote:
"That's because you are looking for an explicit declaration that consent of a defendant is not required for personal jurisdiction."
- No I wasn't.
Yes, you were.
"If consent WAS required for criminal jurisdiction to attach to a defendant, then there would be at least one appellate court case affirming that."
- And your proof of this is where?
And again: where is your appellate court case which says that consent is required? In fact, where can you find any shred of proof that consent is required?