I think this Yahoo page answers the question from the year 1898:Patriotdiscussions wrote:A license, therefore, implying a privilege, cannot possibly exist with reference to something which is a right, free and open to all, as is the right of the citizen to ride and drive over the streets of the city without charge, and without toll, provided he does so in a reasonable manner. [38]
[38] The City of Chicago v. Lorin C. Collins, Jr. et. al., 175 Ill 445 (October 24, 1898) at pp., 456-457. The Court affirmed the illegality of the Chicago "Wheel Tax" ordinance.
https://groups.yahoo.com/neo/groups/bic ... sages/9844
LMFAO - In modern day context, the ONLY thing that this law has to do with is BICYCLES, and it was deemed unconstitutional. Do these morons even know what they are quoting? The answer would be a resounding "NO" !!!Lately, I've heard a few people say bicyclists don't pay taxes for the roads and don't have licenses to use the road. So.....
I've been searching the topic of driver licenses with the words "1908 driver license first" and found things that can prove helpful in understanding why motorists are required to have driver licenses and other road users aren't required to have driver licenses.
According to one website I looked at:
"For example, in 1898 the city of Chicago had in force a law which required that the owners of "wagons, carriages, coaches, buggies, bicycles, and all other wheeled vehicles propelled by horse power or by the rider" pay an annual license fee. [3] (The law was ultimately declared unconstitutional.)"
"[3] The City of Chicago v. Lorin C. Collins, Jr. et. al., 175 Illinois 445 (October 24, 1898), pp. 445 - 459 at p. 446."
Do we have any lawyer-types who can tell us why the law was unconstitutional?