Surprise! You are too predictable, Stevie! I think we've been through this before.SteveSy wrote:Now all you have to do is explain how the court in Pollock could have ruled they way they did and still be consistent with what you think the court said in Springer. As far as I see it, either Pollock overruled Springer or the court was referring to Springers income only and not taxes on the revenue of individuals in general. In fact I believe its the later because the court in Pollock specifically addressed the Springer case and determined where his income came from. If that were not the case Springer would be controlling for all taxes relating to income and only "capitation taxes, as expressed in that instrument, and taxes on real estate" would be direct end of story. Now if you claim that the Pollock court found that the income tax was in substance a tax on real estate then certainly a tax relating to the wages of labor would be a tax on people, capitation tax or head tax being synonymous, which we all agree requires a direct tax and thus overruled Springer.Famspear wrote:From the United States Supreme Court:
--Springer v. United States, 102 U.S. 586 (1881).The central and controlling question in this case is whether the tax which was levied on the income, gains, and profits of the plaintiff in error [i.e., the appellant, William Springer] [ . . .] is a direct tax [ . . .]
[. . . ]
The question, what is a direct tax, is one exclusively in American jurisprudence. The text-writers of the country are in entire accord upon the subject.
[ . . . ] Our conclusions are, that direct taxes, within the meaning of the Constitution, are only capitation taxes, as expressed in that instrument, and taxes on real estate; and that the tax of which the plaintiff in error complains [i.e., the federal income tax on the income of William Springer] is within the category of an excise or duty.
In Pollock, the Court overruled the Springer decision -- but only with respect to a tax on income from property (an income tax on interest, dividends, rent) - -by ruling that a tax on interest, dividends and rents would be TREATED as a direct tax. The Pollock Court specifically noted that a tax on income from employment was still considered an indirect tax. Indirect taxes are not required to be apportioned. A crucial point in Pollock was that the SOURCE of the income suddenly became legally relevant in determining whether the tax was required to be apportioned. If the income was interest, dividends, or rents, then the tax was required to be apportioned (from about 1895 to 1913).
The Sixteenth Amendment (in 1913) overruled the Pollock decision by stating that Congress has the power to tax incomes, from WHATEVER SOURCE, without apportionment, etc.
Since 1913, various lines of cases have developed: One line of cases treats the Amendment as having pulled the income tax on interest, dividends and rents from the "direct" category and put it "back" into the indirect category where it really "belonged" (essentially, reinstituting the Springer holding IN FULL -- so you don't have to "forget" Springer).
Another line of cases treats the Amendment as essentially having made the direct/indirect dichotomy legally irrelevant with respect to the apportionment requirement (cases like Francisco, for example).
In a sense, the two lines of cases are contradictory. Yet BOTH LINES OF CASES ARE CORRECT. Yes, there IS SOMETHING SORT OF LIKE "QUANTUM THEORY" in U.S. federal law! This is one of the puzzles that you seem unable to come to grips with, Steve. (It's something in your own personality that seems to be giving you fits.)
Either way, the result is the same. Congress may legally impose a tax on income from whatever source derived, and may do so without having to apportion the tax.