I stand corrected.LPC wrote:This is something of a technicality, but Famspear has stated the issue backwards. Congress did not limit the jurisdiction of the Tax Court, but rather failed to expand it.
(I know, I know.... "Please sit down.")
I stand corrected.LPC wrote:This is something of a technicality, but Famspear has stated the issue backwards. Congress did not limit the jurisdiction of the Tax Court, but rather failed to expand it.
huh? Has a post been deleted or something? I cannot make that sentence make sense no matter how many times I read it.Tax Protester wrote:Each of your overlooking the fact that there are at least two issues to consider: 1. is the individuals claim for refund and 2. accruing penalties and interest. Each of you instead focus solely on the latter and ignore the former. Each of you overlook that fact that there are many options to consider. There is just not one or two. Each of you can... well I will leave you to figure that out on your own. Your all suppose to be fairly smart right? Though that remains to be seen.
Other explanations aside, I believe there's a simpler answer to your question.mutter wrote:someone explain why the tax court would not have jurisdiction to review/over turn anything the IRS has done. isnt that its entire reason for existance? Judicial review of tax matters. speaking of the frivilous penalties here
...And what does the IRS never ever do... performs any assessment, whatsoever. So what does that mean... you got it!§ 6211. Definition of a deficiency
(a) In general
For purposes of this title in the case of income, estate, and gift taxes imposed by subtitles A and B and excise taxes imposed by chapters 41, 42, 43, and 44 the term “deficiency” means the amount by which the tax imposed by subtitle A or B, or chapter 41, 42, 43, or 44 exceeds the excess of—
(1) the sum of
(A) the amount shown as the tax by the taxpayer upon his return, if a return was made by the taxpayer and an amount was shown as the tax by the taxpayer thereon, plus
(B) the amounts previously assessed (or collected without assessment) as a deficiency, over—
Tax Protester has been "spreading" something, all right, and what he's spreading helps to make the grass grow.Tax Protester wrote:Oh look at that you got me all excited now, I just love spreading knowledge.
"Tax Protester" is apparently responding to a post by Nikki:Tax Protester wrote:What do you mean? It is written that way in the IRC itself. I would have thought you had read them thoroughly? Guess not.
Here perhaps have a reading of RA1862: http://defendindependence.org/IRS/RA/Re ... of1862.PDF
So, in response to a request for "a single word regarding any verifiable source of law or court decision associating taxability with federal nexus," TP responds with a link to the revenue act of 1862?Nikki wrote:And still not a single word regarding any verifiable source of law or court decision associating taxability with federal nexus.
CtC is based on that premise. You can't defend it, so, instead, you fall back on the same old stale ITP and sovereignoramus rhetoric.
I was really hoping for an interesting debate over new theories.
Not that I need to defend myself, but I did say ...Nikki wrote:You overlooked innocent spouse, employee classification, whistleblower rewards, attorney fees, among other jurisdictional aspects of the Tax Court.
I knew there were "other" reasons, and other opportunities, to petition tax court. I wanted to keep it simple for 'mutter' as he contemplated the "normal" reasons he might encounter.This is a rather simple answer, as there are other opportunities to petition tax court ...
Two suggestions: (1) The words, "... if a return was made by the taxpayer ..." go directly to the problem at hand. A 'Cracking the Code' return is treated as a "zero" return and fails the Beard test, and such is upheld by every court that has considered the issue.Tax Protester wrote:Just of few points:
26 USC PARALLEL TABLE OF AUTHORITIES AND RULES
6212: 6203--6204 27 Part 70
6330: NULL
...And what does the IRS never ever do... performs any assessment, whatsoever. So what does that mean... you got it!§ 6211. Definition of a deficiency
(a) In general
For purposes of this title in the case of income, estate, and gift taxes imposed by subtitles A and B and excise taxes imposed by chapters 41, 42, 43, and 44 the term “deficiency” means the amount by which the tax imposed by subtitle A or B, or chapter 41, 42, 43, or 44 exceeds the excess of—
(1) the sum of
(A) the amount shown as the tax by the taxpayer upon his return, if a return was made by the taxpayer and an amount was shown as the tax by the taxpayer thereon, plus
(B) the amounts previously assessed (or collected without assessment) as a deficiency, over—
You do understand that Statutes at Large routinely change, do you not?Tax Protester wrote:What do you mean? It is written that way in the IRC itself. I would have thought you had read them thoroughly? Guess not.
Here perhaps have a reading of RA1862: http://defendindependence.org/IRS/RA/Re ... of1862.PDF
Oh and here: http://www.memory.loc.gov/cgi-bin/ampag ... recNum=673
Oh and, and, and... RA1913: http://defendindependence.org/IRS/RA/IncomeTax1913.PDF
Here is a link to Adam Smith's Wealth of Nations...ASITStands wrote:When I wrote the above, I had not known that 'Tax Protester' took his toys and went home.
However, one of the last posts in the previous thread interested me.
http://quatloos.com/Q-Forum/viewtopic.p ... 583#p60583
I'd like a discussion on how those sentences are out of order. And, maybe a link.
I'll look for a link and look at the issue myself, but it would seem to be a valid point.
Thanks, 'Observer,' for pointing it out. And, "So long, Weston!"