GoldandSilverEagles wrote:LPC wrote:GoldandSilverEagles wrote:For the sake of this debate let's say Congress has passed a law enacting the income tax. How do I fall within their jurisdiction? I don't live or work on federal property, I do not work for a company that contracts or subcontracts with the feds, so where did they get the jurisdiction to tax the fruits of my labors?
Constitution of the United States, Article I, Section 8, clause 1.
Dude, nowhere does that clause
specifically make Americans
working on non-federal land/property liable for the income tax, which was the basis of my question above.
Where does that clause
specifically make Americans working on non-federal land/property
NOT liable for the income tax?
There is nothing in the Constitution that "specifically" allows Congress to tax whiskey, gasoline, gifts, or estates, and yet Congress has done all of those things also.
The only exemption from tax in the Constitution is that Congress cannot tax exports. It was recognized during the debates on the ratification of the Constitution, and it has been confirmed in numerous Supreme Court decisions since then, that the federal power to tax can be imposed on ANYTHING within the states of the United States, subject only to the requirement that direct taxes be apportioned and other taxes be uniform.
For example:
Supreme Court wrote:“It is true that the power of Congress to tax is a very extensive power. It is given in the Constitution with only one exception and only two qualifications. Congress cannot tax exports, and it must impose direct taxes by the rule of apportionment and indirect taxes by the rule of uniformity. Thus, limited, and thus only, it reaches every subject, and may be exercised at discretion.”
License Tax Cases, 72 U.S. 462, 471 (1866) (emphasis added).
See
http://evans-legal.com/dan/tpfaq.html#intent for other examples.
GoldandSilverEagles wrote:BTW....Look up "United States" in blacks law. How many definitions do you find?
BTW....Read the quotation I included from Chief Justice John Marshall. I will provide it again, and highlight the important parts so you won't overlook it again:
Chief Justice John Marshall wrote:“The 8th section of the 1st article gives to Congress the ‘power to lay and collect taxes, duties, imposts and excises,’ for the purposes thereinafter mentioned. This grant is general, [color]without limitation as to place[/color]. It, consequently, extends to all places over which the government extends. If this could be doubted, the doubt is removed by the subsequent words which modify the grant. These words are, ‘but all duties, imposts, and excises, shall be uniform throughout the United States.’ It will not be contended that the modification of the power extends to places to which the power itself does not extend. The power then to lay and collect duties, imposts, and excises, may be exercised, and must be exercised throughout the United States. Does this term designate the whole, or any particular portion of the American empire? Certainly this question can admit of but one answer. [color]It [United States] is the name given to our great republic, which is composed of States and territories.[/color]”
Loughborough v. Blake, 18 U.S. (Wheat.) 317, 318-319 (1820), (Chief Justice Marshall, writing for a unanimous court; emphasis added).
You are quite free to do your research and find a court decision from any court anywhere in the United States, at any time, at any level, that says that Congress cannot impose a tax within a state of the United States, or that Congress cannot impose a tax unless there is a "federal privilege" or "federal connection." But I'll save you the time, there aren't any. And there are numerous decisions declaring those kinds of arguments to be ridiculous.